FREE DEMO VERSION AND FREE UPDATES OF REAL COMPTIA CAS-004 QUESTIONS

Free Demo Version and Free Updates of Real CompTIA CAS-004 Questions

Free Demo Version and Free Updates of Real CompTIA CAS-004 Questions

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The CASP+ certification exam is ideal for IT professionals who are looking to advance their careers in cybersecurity. It is designed for individuals who have a minimum of ten years of experience in IT administration, with at least five years of hands-on experience in technical security. CAS-004 exam is also suitable for IT professionals who are looking to transition from other IT fields to cybersecurity.

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is a certification exam that is designed to validate the advanced-level security skills and knowledge of IT professionals. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is intended for those who have a minimum of ten years of experience in IT administration, including at least five years of hands-on technical security experience. CAS-004 Exam is ideal for those who want to enhance their expertise in enterprise security, risk management, research and analysis, and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines.

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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Sample Questions (Q679-Q684):

NEW QUESTION # 679
An organization is running its e-commerce site in the cloud. The capacity is sufficient to meet the organization's needs throughout most of the year, except during the holidays when the organization plans to introduce a new line of products and expects an increase in traffic. The organization is not sure how well its products will be received. To address this issue, the organization needs to ensure that:
* System capacity is optimized.
* Cost is reduced.
Which of the following should be implemented to address these requirements? (Select TWO).

  • A. WAF
  • B. Load balancer
  • C. Containerization
  • D. Microsegmentation
  • E. CDN
  • F. Autoscaling

Answer: B,F

Explanation:
Explanation
Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.
References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 406-407 and 410]


NEW QUESTION # 680
An analyst reviews the following output collected during the execution of a web application security assessment:

Which of the following attacks would be most likely to succeed, given the output?

  • A. On-path forced renegotiation to insecure ciphers
  • B. Availability attack from manipulation of associated authentication data
  • C. Padding oracle attack
  • D. NULL and unauthenticated cipher downgrade attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
Based on the output in the image, which shows weak cipher suites and vulnerabilities related to encryption padding, the padding oracle attack is the most likely. This type of attack exploits the way padding errors are handled during decryption, potentially allowing an attacker to decrypt sensitive information. The weak cipher suites and lack of forward secrecy further increase the likelihood of such an attack succeeding. CASP+ highlights padding oracle attacks as critical vulnerabilities, particularly in environments where weak encryption protocols are used.
References:
* CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 - Enterprise Security Operations (Encryption and Padding Oracle Attacks)
* CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Cryptographic Attacks and Cipher Vulnerabilities


NEW QUESTION # 681
An analyst received a list of IOCs from a government agency. The attack has the following characteristics:
1. The attack starts with bulk phishing.
2. If a user clicks on the link, a dropper is downloaded to the computer.
3. Each of the malware samples has unique hashes tied to the user.
The analyst needs to identify whether existing endpoint controls are effective. Which of the following risk mitigation techniques should the analyst use?

  • A. Update the incident response plan.
  • B. Detonate in a sandbox.
  • C. Blocklist the executable.
  • D. Deploy a honeypot onto the laptops.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Detonating the malware in a sandbox is the best way to analyze its behavior and determine whether the existing endpoint controls are effective. A sandbox is an isolated environment that mimics a real system but prevents any malicious actions from affecting the actual system. By detonating the malware in a sandbox, the analyst can observe how it interacts with the system, what files it creates or modifies, what network connections it establishes, and what indicators of compromise it exhibits. This can help the analyst identify the malware's capabilities, objectives, and weaknesses. A sandbox can also help the analyst compare different malware samples and determine if they are related or part of the same campaign.
A) Updating the incident response plan is not a risk mitigation technique, but rather a proactive measure to prepare for potential incidents. It does not help the analyst identify whether existing endpoint controls are effective against the malware.
B) Blocklisting the executable is a risk mitigation technique that can prevent the malware from running on the system, but it does not help the analyst analyze its behavior or determine whether existing endpoint controls are effective. Moreover, blocklisting may not be feasible if each malware sample has a unique hash tied to the user.
C) Deploying a honeypot onto the laptops is a risk mitigation technique that can lure attackers away from the real systems and collect information about their activities, but it does not help the analyst analyze the malware's behavior or determine whether existing endpoint controls are effective. A honeypot is also more suitable for detecting network-based attacks rather than endpoint-based attacks.


NEW QUESTION # 682
An organization performed a risk assessment and discovered that less than 50% of its employees have been completing security awareness training. Which of the following should the Chief Information Security Officer highlight as an area of Increased vulnerability in a report to the management team?

  • A. Pivoting
  • B. APT targeting
  • C. Social engineering
  • D. Third-party compromise

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) should highlight social engineering as an area of increased vulnerability due to the lack of completion of security awareness training by employees.
Social engineering attacks exploit human behavior, and employees who are not adequately trained are more likely to fall victim to phishing, pretexting, and other types of social engineering tactics. Increasing awareness and training helps employees recognize and respond appropriately to these threats.


NEW QUESTION # 683
An organization wants to perform a scan of all its systems against best practice security configurations.
Which of the following SCAP standards, when combined, will enable the organization to view each of the configuration checks in a machine-readable checklist format for fill automation? (Choose two.)

  • A. CVE
  • B. CPE
  • C. XCCDF
  • D. OVAL
  • E. CVSS
  • F. ARF

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 684
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